/u/grapp's posts
Why didn't the English ever try to divide up New England among titled lords like England still was in 17th century?
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Did the Aztecs (or what ever the people who lived in and around Tenochtitlan actually called them selves) have a longer life expectancy than people who lived Europe circa 1450?
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How did Commodore Perry and/or his men communicate with the Japanese when they got there? Did the Japanese have people who could understand English or did the Americans find & take an interpreter somewhere in the west?
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I read a time travel story once that had a bit in it set in 1250BC Olmec country. When the Olmec crops are described they're all mixed together, with squash vines growing around maize stalks and what not, rather than in separate plots. Is that really how Mesoamerican agriculture worked?
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in 1313 would most people (as in everyone, not just the upper class and/or literate) in England have heard of king Arthur?
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if you were an English peasant in 1100 (after the Norman conquest) would you life likely be in anyway substantially worse or different than it would have been if lived in the same place 100 years before (before the Norman conquest)?
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When the Vikings showed up in (what is now) Eastern Canada would the natives there have already had bows? If "no" why didn't they adopt it from the Norse?
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