/u/grapp's posts
I've always got the impression (from movies and school teachers mostly) that the Huns and the mongols were both very similar it terms of how they lived (nomadic, horse riders, imperialists) and where they came from (The Asian Steppe lands). Do you think that's a reasonable way to view them?
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did the Romans at all associate their supposed superiority to barbarians with their greater technical knowhow (IE example they had watermills well the Celts were still grinding by hand) or did they imagine it to be an entirely cultural superiority (IE "we make better art & poetry than them")?
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did the pictish/celtic tribes in scotland continue fighting wars among the selves after the Romans took england? or did the Romans' presence focus their collective ire outwardly?
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A teacher once told me that before the Columbian exchange the turnip was the most popular root vegetable in Western Europe, land used for potatoes in 1800 was probably used for turnips in 1400. True?
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If in 1879 you asked a Chinese aristocrat what they thought of Japan’s Meiji Restoration would they have likely been disapproving?
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I read that a Shaku (a pre-metric Japanese measuments) is less than 1% shorter than a foot. Is that a coincidence or not?
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aside from who the nationality of the ruling family, how did Ptolemaic Egypt differ from when the country last had a native ruler?
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A while back Someone on an alt-history forum told me there is a fringe theory about Odin having been a real person who lived some thousands of years ago. Is that a real theory? If "yes" how plausible is it?
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