/u/grapp's posts
In primary school (2001) I was taught that English peasants were exploited less before the Norman invasion because the Saxon aristocracy were more closely related (in the cultural & familial sense) to the people they were ruling over. How true is that idea?
Mark as read: Add to a list
how did people in Europe in the 16th century believe the natives had originally gotten to the New world? Did people in 16th century Europe believe all humans were from the old world originally?
Mark as read: Add to a list
the Urban Cohort and the Praetorian Guard (IE the Roman troops stationed in Rome it's self), When they weren't on duty did they live in barracks, or were they allowed to dwell in the city & have familes?
Mark as read: Add to a list
Mark as read: Add to a list
Mark as read: Add to a list
suppose I own and run a pawn shop in London in 1898. does the rest of my community look down on me for taking advantage of the poor (as pawn shop proprietors tend to get depicted in pop culture today) or am I seen as an honest businessman?
Mark as read: Add to a list
you know that story about the Saxons invading because Vortigern invited them. Is that story apocryphal because it kind of sounds too ....fantasy novel to be true?
Mark as read: Add to a list
Mark as read: Add to a list
how come the Saxon invasion resulted in English becoming the dominant language in England but the Norman invasion didn't result French becoming the dominant language?
Mark as read: Add to a list