/u/gringawn's posts in /r/askhistorians
Was the tax burden (in % of income) lower in ancient times (18th century before) due to the people's surplus above the subsistence being also lower?
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Does the Chinese economy nowadays resemble the fascist Italian economy? What are the differences and similarities?
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Did any country become as industrialized as Germany, the US, and the UK in the 19th century without using national bituminous coal to fuel its industry?
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