/u/kalam4z00's posts in /r/AskHistorians

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From Reconstruction up until the Civil Rights movement, much of the American South was functionally a one-party state. Why was the north, and the national Republican Party, seemingly so content to let the South remain this way?

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In 1991, former KKK Grand Wizard David Duke ran for governor and received 39% of the vote, including a majority of the white vote. How did the rest of the country respond to these results? Did Duke's run impact the Republican Party's loss in the 1992 Presidential Election?

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From Reconstruction up until the Civil Rights movement, much of the American South was functionally a one-party state. Why was the north, and the national Republican Party, seemingly so content to let the South remain this way?	1
In 1991, former KKK Grand Wizard David Duke ran for governor and received 39% of the vote, including a majority of the white vote. How did the rest of the country respond to these results? Did Duke's run impact the Republican Party's loss in the 1992 Presidential Election?	1