/u/lcnielsen's posts in /r/askhistorians
To what extent did Classical/Hellenic/later Greek authors conceive of political dominion in geographical terms and how did this conception evolve?
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When, how and why did Austria become the seat of power in Central Europe? Was the power of the Habsburg family the cause, an effect, or neither?
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I'm a peasant subject to a local landed noble in say, France or England in the High Middle Ages. Is the land I sow and harvest from considered my property?
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The modern English keyboard seems to have the right-hand side of its main setup optimized for programming - but why do the parentheses seem harder to reach than the square brackets?
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Were Mid-Late Republican/Principate Roman ideas of governance and administration directly influenced by Hellenistic kingdoms?
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