/u/level10peon's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Are there any examples in pre-modern history of citizens/subjects of a major power romanticizing conquered/neighboring indigenous cultures?
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Why was there so much diversity on policy positions among elected officials within each of the two US parties during the mid-20th century? Was that a recent development, or had this diversity been the case for some time?
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Ideologically motivated revolutions, either proposed or actualized, seemed to not exist before the French Revolutionary era, and persist to this day. Why? What changed in western society?
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Was there ever a time when the popular use of the term "reactionary" was merely descriptive and not pejorative?
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