/u/level10peon's posts
Why is generally considered a bad thing when a work (often of popular history) relies mostly on secondary sources?
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Are there any examples in pre-modern history of citizens/subjects of a major power romanticizing conquered/neighboring indigenous cultures?
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Why was there so much diversity on policy positions among elected officials within each of the two US parties during the mid-20th century? Was that a recent development, or had this diversity been the case for some time?
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In the latter 20th century, most floor speeches given in the chambers of the US Congress are given to nearly empty rooms, and most real legislative business is done elsewhere. But this wasn't always the case. When did this change and why?
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Ideologically motivated revolutions, either proposed or actualized, seemed to not exist before the French Revolutionary era, and persist to this day. Why? What changed in western society?
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