/u/manfrin's posts in /r/AskHistorians
I've read that Diocletian's trade tax laws led to large landowners to focus less on trade and instead invest in local production. Because of this, they became the local centers of power when the Western Empire fell, and eventually grew in to what we call Duchies. Is this true?
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In Antiquity, did regional troop types retain their 'type' after being subsumed by a larger state? Did Rome field Thessalian Cavalry and Cretan Archers beyond the first conquering, for instance?
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I've read that tax laws enacted by Diocletian made some large landholders turn away from trade/move more towards production on their own lands; which in turn gave rise to the beginnings of Duchies after the fall of the Western Empire. To what extent is this true, how did duchies form?
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Were there ever any serious plans to fill in the southern part of the San Francisco Bay? It's all shallow/marshland, and there are plenty of examples of land reclamation elsewhere in the bay.
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What is the history of sandbags? Were they used in the ancient world -- and if not, how did Ancient Greeks/Romans/Latins/etc deal with flooding rivers?
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[Middle Ages] People outside Europe often referred to Europeans as Franks, even when they weren't Frankish (e.g. Vasco de Gama was called 'Ferengi' by Arabian Sea muslims) -- did (non-Frankish) Europeans consider themselves Frankish at all?
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The Carpathians are an enormous geographic divide between Transylvania and Wallachia, why did Transylvania end up part of Romania instead of independent of part of Hungary?
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Why does it seem like throughout Ancient history, tribes were continually pushing out (North, West, and South) from Eastern Europe or the Steppes?
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