/u/maproomzibz's posts
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If I walked into courts of various Indo-Islamic states from 1700s till the British domination, would I find everyone speaking be Persian or Hindustani/Urdu?
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the Ilkhanate in Persia quickly disintegrated into different states (like Muffazarids, Jalayridis, Chobanids, etc). How did these states come to being immediately after the fall of Mongol states, and were they governors of different provinces, or did they take power after the Collapse?
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Given that in European colonial empires, the natives converted from their indigenous polytheistic beliefs to Christianity, why didn't Hindus in British India convert en masse to Christianity?
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In my understanding, the Mughal Empire had governors of subahs/provinces titled 'subedars'. But in late 18th century, the leaders of several subahs such as Bengal and Awadh were titled 'nawabs'. How did the governors of these subahs later came to have 'nawabs' rather than 'subedars'?
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Would it be accurate to say that Ottoman Empire gradually lost its 'Turko-Persian' or 'Persianate' cultural tradition over time?
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Was the Company Raj in India essentially its own state separate from the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland?
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Today India is one of the top destination for Westerners for tourism due to their fascination with the culture and history of the region. Were there similar Western tourists who would come to India during the British Raj (19th century or before) due to their appreciative fascination with the region?
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