/u/megami-hime's posts in /r/askhistorians
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According to Wikipedia, Andalusian rulers' "religious indifference" was detested by Muslim clerics who declared a fatwa against them, justifying the Almoravid conquest. What did this "religious indifference" entail?
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Realistically, why would Muhammad's teachings have been controversial for the Meccans? Wasn't monotheistic religions such as Christianity, Judaism and Zoroastrianism already present in the city?
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Pierre Briant's From Cyrus to Alexander is nearly 30 years old now - Is there really no newer equivalent?
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Why were republics (or at least governments calling itself one) were limited to (relatively) small states throughout medieval Europe?
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I'm a common peasant in 1000 AD Persia, and I have a dream: to become a great scholar and study in Baghdad's House of Wisdom. How achievable is this, and what is the journey/process like?
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