/u/mercurial_zephyr's posts in /r/askhistorians
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Is there any evidence that The Prince was intended as satire or an admonishment, and not as a set of instructions or a guide to political life?
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In Shakespeare's Henry VI, part 3, Gloucester boasts that he could "set the murderous Machiavel to school." How familiar were Elizabethan audiences with Machiavelli? Would they have noticed the anachronism?
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