/u/mweuste's posts in /r/AskHistorians
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From what I understand there is an issue amongst medieval historians concerning the term 'feudalism'. Can anyone fill me in here?
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In Empires of the Silk Road, Chris Beckwith suggests that Emarnaric (hope I spelled that correctly) built a Gothic Empire in Eastern Europe and attacked the Huns. It was this that caused the Huns to counter attack and pursue the into Rome. How valid is this assessment?
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