/u/phi_array's posts in /r/askhistorians
Why are UK's former colonies (US, Canada, New Zealand, Australia...) first world countries but Spanish ones (Basically most of Latin America) are not? What did the British do "right"?
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Before the telegraph, how were battle news and treaties (such as the Declaration of Independence or peace treaties) signed with such a gigantic “latency” ?
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Why was it ok for Spanish conquistadors and colonists to “mix” with the locals but not for the English or other European colonial powers?
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In Dr Who, the doctor removes PM Harriet Jones by asking “don’t you think she looks tired?” To a person in her staff. Have other heads of state being removed like that, a mere rumor?
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Why did Germany recognized the holocaust (and even made monuments to remember it) but Turkey to this day still denies the Armenian genocide?
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