/u/sangbum60090's posts in /r/askhistorians
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Why did Saladin show no mercy towards millitary orders like Templars and Hospitallers in particular?
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I'm reading a book about the Age of Exploration and it seems to imply that Jesuit education is one of the reasons for the fall of Portuguese Empire. How accepted is this argument?
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Did the British Empire try to emulate the Roman Empire in some ways? I've heard that they did try to draw some parallels back then.
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