/u/screwyoushadowban's posts in /r/askhistorians
Today in the United States if an individual commits a public act of violence (mass murder, political assassination), in the absence of other evidence, pop culture and journalism often rationalizes it as mental illness. What was the "easy" rationalization in 1960 (or 1963)? What about 1910? Or 1860?
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Ethically how was the attempted & partially successful extermination of the "Five Barbarian Peoples" by Ran Min judged in later Chinese thought? How many people were actually murdered? And did it inform 20th century Chinese thought on the concept of genocide?
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How did Lebanese civil society of the 90s and early 00s adapt to the fact that one of the major fixtures of their political and charitable life was/is tied to a powerful transnational terrorist organization, Hezbollah?
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How did indigenous Americans of the Old Northwest and now Eastern United States conceptualize people outside of the gender and sex binary? Were what we know call LGBTQ people liminal beings or did they occupy something like a "third sex"?
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Did the British deliberately hide/underplay the contribution of colonial troops/non-white soldiers the way the French did during WWII?
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When fighters carried both a spear and a bow & arrows into battle, where did they put their spear while firing their bow?
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Why did Hitler & the Nazi's use the propaganda name "Thousand-Year Reich" for their country (among other names)? Why not "Eternal Reich"? What was the Fascist understanding of time, the future, & "progress"?
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