/u/td4999's posts in /r/AskHistorians
The Stuarts had a mix of Catholic and Protestant family members, at a time when the stakes for such decisions were very high. How unusual for the time was it for a royal family to have such a mix? How did this diversity come about?
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Was Milton's depiction of Satan's rebellion in Paradise Lost based on existing theological tradition, and, if so what sources would he have relied on?
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'Bread and circuses' originates in a satire by Juvenal- was he satirizing the mob, the politicians appeasing the mob, or both?
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in 1868 when Andrew Johnson was impeached and nearly convicted, the office of Vice President was vacant; was there an established plan for what would happen after Johnson was removed from office? Was there a particular agenda? Was there controversy in one branch so dominating the government?
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I've heard the Disneyified versions of Grimm's Tales Americans are familiar with are highly sanitized (RRHood and Grandma are eaten by the wolf,Snow White is about necrophilia,it's Cinderella's family, not steps- tormenting her, that kind of thing).Is this true? Were children the target audience?
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Would your average peasant in, say, Provençal France circa 1300 CE understand the (presumably) Latin mass they were attending? Were the homilies (lessons) also in Latin? Why were some prayers preserved in their original(?) Greek and others in Latin? Still a conversational language at this point?
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Is there any evidence suggesting that the Roman origin myth, that it was settled by emigrees from Troy (or the Trojan war), had any basis in fact?
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As I understand it, Judaism has existed as a messianic faith long before, and after, the time of Christ, and yet by far the most prominent (to modern eyes) examples of messianic movements centered around the first century CE; was something driving this? Is this historical hindsight on my part?
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