/u/td4999's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Are there theories as to why so much of Enlightenment political thought (for examples Hobbes, Locke, Smith) emerged out of England in the 17th and 18th centuries? Was there something distinctive about how openly these subjects were permitted to be discussed in the public square?
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In the 1990s, grunge was highly associated with heroin; were there socioeconomic/political factors that contributed to a rise in heroin use in the Pacific northwest? Was this an illusion created by a few high-profile users or was there really a spike in usage and are there any theories as to why? NSFW
675 upvotes
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How is it that the US Civil War proved to be such an exception to the adage that "history is written by the victors"? How is it that Southern scholarship dominated academic discussion of the war for a century after the conflict (or is this a misconception)?
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Unlike other democracies, the US has repeatedly reverted to a two-party system throughout virtually all of its history (even when the parties involved have changed). Is this a result of something structurally distinct about America, just force of habit, or something else?
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The Democratic party held a majority of seats in the House of Representatives for all but four years from 1931 until 1995; how were they able to maintain this edge over generations? How were Republicans able to remain competitive in national races in spite of this?
613 upvotes
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"A Charlie Brown Christmas" decries the commercialization of the holiday in 1965. Was this expressing a common sentiment, or was it ahead of its time? Were there other prominent critiques of the value of/detriments of over-commercialization at the time?
571 upvotes
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As early as 1327, the English Parliament was already powerful enough to depose Edward II; was there something structurally or culturally different about England that allowed its legislative body to exert that kind of authority in what I assume would be an era of consolidating royal power in Europe?
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Slavery in England faded out of practice within the first century and a half of the Norman conquest. Was this a result of cultural or political will, or something else? Was it unusual in the Europe of the time?
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In the election of 1840, US voter participation in Presidential elections jumped from consistently around 55% to slightly over 80%, from which point it remained high for the rest of the century. What triggered this extraordinary change? Why did they fall off in the 20th century?
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