/u/td4999's posts in /r/askhistorians
'All in the Family', the most popular show in the '70s, reflected the contentious politics of the day being hashed out around the dinner table, in a way never really seen before or since. Was public, inter-familial discourse like this reflecting something in the zeitgeist, or did they create it?
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How common was it that the fighting in WWI had ceased more than seven months before the Treaty of Versailles was adopted? Did this period of de-escalation cripple Germany's ability to fight, had they have decided not to accept the terms the Allies offered, or were they a spent force?
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Where does the story of returning Vietnam vets being spit on in airports come from? Was it common, and if not, how did the impression that it was become widespread?
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In 'Lawrence of Arabia' TE Lawrence is portrayed as an idealist who gives up and yields to more practical men when it becomes obvious that his vision of an independent, pan-Arabic union is not to be; was this an accurate depiction of his reaction to the post-war fallout?
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Has a deck of cards always been made up of 52 cards divided into four suits? How did they evolve into the form they currently take?
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It seems apparent that "racism" explains why African Americans were excluded from juries until the Civil Rights Act was passed; why were women excluded in some states until 1968? Did they even try to justify it?
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The adoption of Compstat and "broken windows" policing in the mid-90s coincided with a significant drop in crime, along with significant debate about whether these policies deserve credit for it. Is there an academic consensus about these arguments? What are their respective cases?
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Did Henry II expect a war when he married Eleanor of Aquitaine immediately after her annulment from Louis VII? How is it that the king of England stealing (more or less) the king of France's wife (herself ruler of one of the richest duchies in Europe) didn't cause a war?
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What was the British public's reaction to a German who didn't speak English coming over to rule in 1714? Were they used to foreign rulers by that point? Did this hamper George I's ability to rule in any way?
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For a figure such as Nero, who exists in the ancient record arguably as caricature, when modern historians reexamine his record, do any relatively 'pro-Nero' ancient sources survive? If not, how do historians go about sifting propaganda from whatever else they have to draw the record from?
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