/r/askhistorians
Slavery in most of the Arabian peninsula was not abolished until the 1950s and the 1960s. What was slavery like at this time period?
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Was German always considered an intimidating/scary language or are we conditioned to think that way because we see Nazis speak them in movies?
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When did pharmacies become entirely corporatized? What caused the end of independently owned/not mega corporate pharmacies in the US?
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How did Thomas Jefferson reconcile his incredible language in the Declaration of Independence with being a slave owner? How can/could he espouse these incredible ideals and yet hold slaves? Was there ever a stated rationality that he propounded?
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I've often heard it said that the ancient Romans were so culturally and ethnically non-homogenous that "racism" as we now understand it did not exist for them. Is this really true?
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