/u/226872's posts in /r/askhistorians
Why did savory pie culture (shepherd's pie, chicken pot pie, etc.) not transfer to North America nearly as well as desert pie culture (apple pie, blueberry pie, etc.) while by comparison it thrived in Europe?
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Was Oktoberfest celebrated in the German Empire? If so, how (if at all) was it different from what we know today as oktoberfest?
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Assuming that the Byzantine Empire was the legitimate successor to the Roman Empire and that Andreas Palaiologos legitimately transferred his succession rights to the Byzantine throne to Ferdinand II of Aragon in his will, what happened to those rights? Did Ferdinand pass them on?
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Assuming that the Byzantine Empire was the legitimate successor to the Roman Empire and that Andreas Palaiologos legitimately transferred his succession rights to the Byzantine throne to Ferdinand II of Aragon in his will, who is the rightful heir today (if there is one)?
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