/u/Charle-who's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Swearing an oath is a common part of Anglo-Saxon law. Was swearing an oath also common in Byzantine law? (From say 900 - 1200 C.E.?)
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What are the common goals pursued in treaties by 'Byzantine' emperors in the late 9th to early 11th centuries?
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Was a person's baptismal name the name they were commonly referred to as post-baptism in ninth century England?
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Was there a term in Old Norse or any related Scandinavian language that was similar to the Anglo-Saxon concept of "wergild"?
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In the Ordinance of Dunstaete the treaty text states that one can clear themselves by ordeal (ordal). Do we know what such an ordeal would have been?
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What is the current academic consensus on Gildas' account of the Anglo-Saxon migration? Specifically Gildas' narrative of a Germanic foederati/mercenary rebellion.
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Historians often see the powers of the medieval West as becoming more centralised throughout the period. Is this also the case in the Byzantine Empire between, say, 900-1200?
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