/u/DDM201's posts in /r/AskHistorians
When assessing the success of armies, how frequently do historians take a "X casualties vs Y casualties" ratio into account? Is it possible for a military to lose a war, but be deemed superior due to a high efficiency ratio? (KDR in real life)
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Historians, a bit of a different style of question today. What is your unpopular opinion with regards to the World Wars?
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What was the reaction of the soldiers to the senseless massacre at the Somme? Did morale drop significantly? Was the butchery communicated to other units across the western front?
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