/u/DarthMaulwurfDasFett's posts in /r/askhistorians
If the Anglo-Saxons who settled Britain came from Jutland, and the Vikings who pillaged the Anglo-Saxons in Britain a few hundred years later came from Jutland, then did those Vikings know they were pillaging their own people?
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If the Anglo-Saxons settling Britain spoke Old English, and the Angles before settling Britain spoke Old English, but the Saxons before settling Britain spoke Old Saxon, then at what point in history did the Saxons switch to Old English?
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