/u/Dialent's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Following the French Revolution, the other nations of Europe were shocked and outraged by death of Louis XVI, resulting in military intervention. 150 years prior, Charles I of England was similarly executed by his own people, but no foreign intervention occurred. Why were the reactions so different?
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In India, the Caste system is still prevalent. Why has this happened, and why have places where the feudal system was enforced (Japan, Europe) abandoned the concept, while India has clung on?
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