/u/Dychab100's posts in /r/AskHistorians
I'm a polyglot in Renaissance Europe. I speak French, Spanish, Italian, and Latin. I've noticed that several words sound similar between the different languages. Am I aware that they all descended from Latin? If not, when did Europeans realize this?
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Did the Western Roman Empire have any direct control over land outside of Italy and Dalmatia by the time that Julius Nepos became emperror in 474?
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