/u/Elbrujosalvaje's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Until the presidency of Andrew Jackson, the US federal government considered the "American Indian" nations to be independent foreign nations. That being the case, wouldn't the US government's seizure of Native American lands have violated international law, such as the Treaty of Westphalia (1648)?
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Between 1596 to 1601, Queen Elizabeth I wrote a series of letters complaining of the “great numbers of Negars and Blackamoors” in England and authorizing their deportation. What was the exact ethnic and/or racial identity of this group? Why were they targeted in this way and not other groups?
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In 1753, Britain’s Parliament passed the so-called “Jew Bill.” Why did passage of the act―a comparatively minor piece of legislation meant to benefit a small number of rich Jews―generate such public outrage and antisemitic fearmongering that Parliament was forced to repeal it the following year?
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Did the German imperialist and colonialist experience in sub-Saharan Africa before WWI play any role in laying the groundwork for the Nazi Holocaust?
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From 1781 to 1871, the US government signed over 400 treaties with Native American tribes. Yet how valid are these documents given both sides had different conceptions of property ownership? Wouldn’t it mean that even under color of law, Native tribes were still being swindled out of their land?
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We know ex-Nazis were allowed to work in Western governments and international organizations after WWII. Some of these ex-Nazis were quite prominent. What about in Eastern Europe? Were there any ex-Nazis in the Soviet government? What about in the governments of the Soviet-occupied countries?
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There is a consensus among historians that there really was a massive Native American depopulation event in the Western hemisphere lasting from c. 1500 to the present day. What is the hard archaeological and anthropological evidence supporting this consensus?
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