/u/ExpertEyeroller's posts in /r/askhistorians
The Indian subcontinent was the birthplace of Buddhism. The teaching of Buddha found lots of success in foreign lands such as China, Myanmar, and Indochina. Yet in its homeland, it is currently a very small minority. How could this be?
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When people in the Roman Empire ca. 410 AD say the word "Goth", they were thinking of barbarous tribes that came from their northern border. Now, when people say the word "Goth", we think of ruinous castles, gloomy churchyards, and teenagers with heavy eyeliners. How do these two meanings relate?
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Why did the Dutch East Indies became only one independent state (Indonesia) while all the other colonies in South and Southeast Asia fractured to become multiple independent states?
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How did the political dissidents being put into Gulag by Stalin reintegrate themselves into everyday Soviet life?
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Why do we call rulers such as the Shah of Persia, the Sultan of Brunei, and the Tsar of Russia by their native title but we don't call the Chinese Emperor as 'Huangdi' or the Japanese Emperor as 'Tenno'? Why don't we call them all 'Kings'/'Emperors'?
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In 1533, the Incan emperor Atahualpa was sentenced to death by Francisco Pizarro. Given how contentious the matter of executing a monarch was, how was the reaction of contemporary monarchs/clergies/nobilities to Pizarro's actions?
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Recent history books with a topic relating to non-Western cultures seem to act very carefully when engaging said cultures. However, I notice a tendency for those books to not extend the same care when invoking 'the West'. Historians, how do you use the term 'the West' in your works?
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