/u/Hoyarugby's posts in /r/askhistorians
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In popular history, the voyages of discovery to Africa and the Americas are often explained by the Ottoman conquest of Constantinople, claiming that this cut off trade. But before 1453, this same trade was still controlled by Muslim powers. Did the Ottoman conquests change Mediterranean trade?
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Why is there such a massive difference between the number of men fighting in Classical and Medieval battles?
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Why did the Greek city-states and Italian merchant republics have a sense of civic "nationalism", while other comparative cities did not?
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