/u/In_shpurrs's posts in /r/askscience
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Mutilation of the penis/prepuce, i.e. circumcision, has been performed ritually for thousands of years; jews and muslims have been confirmed to remove the foreskin for more than 1000 years. Evolutionarily speaking: Why hasn't this ritual mutilation affected the penises of their offspring? Or has it?
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During a clear, dark, and quiet night I've observed a small lightsource from a distance be distorted by a (somewhat) loud soundburst. Have you?
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