/u/LFCSS's posts in /r/AskHistorians
If the British abolished slavery in 1833; how were they able to force Indian workers to migrate to Southeast Asia in sugar plantations in the late 19th century? Surely this still counted as slavery?
64 upvotes
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When the Moors embarqued on the conquest of the Iberian peninsula in 711A.D, there were already Visigoth Kings and Lords with names such as Ervigio, Witzia, Chindasvinto & Rodrigo. Were they Iberians, or did they migrate from other lands, as some of their names suggest?
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