/u/LazyFrenchGuy's posts in /r/askhistorians
In the "Sexual confession of a Russian anonymous", the narrator describes late-19th century Naples as riddled with prostitution, including families casually selling off their underage children to locals and tourists alike: was the situation really that dire? NSFW
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I read that Descartes published his Discourse on the Method anonymously because he was worried of the Church's reaction after the Galileo affair: was this hostile sentiment universally shared among western Europeans in the 17th century or was it rather restricted to the Church and its members?
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