/u/LeonInJapan's posts in /r/askhistorians
According to Herodotus, Babylonian women had to have intercourse with a stranger once in their lifetime without refusing. Is there any proof that such customs actually existed? And if they did, are there any documents talking about whether these women saw this as rape or thought it normal to do?
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How much would a commoner have known about their monarch during the High Middle Ages in Europe? Additionally, would it be possible that some commoners living in very far countryside wouldn't even know they are under control of a monarch at all?
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Herodotus wrote "the Egyptians are from other causes also the most healthy of all men next after the Libyans", yet the Egyptians at that time seemed to suffer from malnutrition. Was malnutrition such a big occurrence around the world at that time, and why?
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What is the first known mention of someone having a(n) (food) allergy, and how did they interpret it?
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