/u/Loopdeloopandsuffer's posts in /r/askhistorians
In Machiavelli’s “The Prince” Machiavelli states that it was far more cost efficient and effective for princes to send out colonies rather than armies, was this a common practice, even in well populated areas like Italy? How would this work? Does this colonization differ from new world colonization?
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In Niccolo Machiavelli's "The Prince" he mentions that it's far easier and more cost effective to take land by sending out colonies rather than armies. Was the practice of establishing colonies in already well populated areas like Italy common for conquest? Was this actually effective?
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How were viceroys selected, in the case of Spain and Portugal during the early colonial era/Spanish golden age?
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In a January 1st, 1725 publication of the New England Courant, the foreign affairs section notes that the grasshopper population was very high in Rome, prompting the pope to “ thunder excommunication against those insects. . .” Was this something that would be common? Did they think it would work?
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