/u/MadMan1244567's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Is it accurate to say that democratisation and the dawn of “inclusive institutions” in much of Latin America did not involve traumatic “critical junctures”?
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To what extent did the Black Death create the conditions for/allow for the French Revolution over 4 centuries later?
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Why did Southeast Asian civilisations fail to modernise or industrialise before the arrival of the Europeans?
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