/u/Nachie's posts in /r/askhistorians
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When I read a quote from Heraclitus or another classical philosopher and see a semicolon or other punctuation, were those subjectively inserted by translators or do they have equivalents in the original text?
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During the Napoleonic Wars was it considered necessary to have a pretext for going to war or were countries just like, "Hmm it's been a couple years, I declare war!"
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