/u/Nachie's posts
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When I read a quote from Heraclitus or another classical philosopher and see a semicolon or other punctuation, were those subjectively inserted by translators or do they have equivalents in the original text?
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During the Napoleonic Wars was it considered necessary to have a pretext for going to war or were countries just like, "Hmm it's been a couple years, I declare war!"
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If I shake a canteen full of water long enough and hard enough, will the water ever get warm from the friction?
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How is it that one sense can compensate for the loss of another (e.g. some blind people being able to hear better) when the visual and auditory cortexes/association areas are in totally different parts of the brain?
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I have no interest in writing papers but love STEM and want to get as deep into the various fields as possible is there any hope for my academic aspirations?
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