/u/Shashank1000's posts in /r/askhistorians
Through the 20th century, the share of proletariat has continually increased across the advanced countries of the West. Why didn't mainstream institutions become consciously proletarian in term of orientation and interests? Why did people identify as "middle class" and not proletarian/working class?
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In the 60's, there was a great excitement about development of Cybernetics esp in the socialist bloc as it was seen as something that would make planned economy more effective and higher form than markets. Why did it never become widespread to improve growth rate and solve problems of planning?
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Engels remarked that "In 1847, socialism designated a bourgeois movement, communism a labor movement. Socialism was, at least on the continent, a doctrine presentable in salons; communism, just the opposite". How accurate was this assessment?
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How did the economy of Medieval Empires of Vijayanagara function? How advanced was the bureaucratic administration?
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Many historians today reject the 'Civilisational Tree' model and the notion of 'progress'. Is there any alternative model or does history have no direction?
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Was Joseph Schumpeter right in saying that Capitalism began in Medieval Italian cities like Florence during Renaissance?
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Khrushchev once accused Zhukov of being a "Bonapartist" and Marxist historian Isaac Deutscher considered Military coup to be a "possibility".How did Socialist countries (USSR, GDR, HPR etc) safeguard themselves against the possibility of a military coup?
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I have seen many references to "Asiatic despotism" in the work of 19th and 20th century writers. How did this notion become popular? Were Asian societies really more authoritarian than average as compared to other regions?
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