/u/Spirited-Pause's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Given that from very early on, the Turkic tribes that formed the early Ottoman elites intermarried with those of the much larger native Anatolian and Greek populations, would it be accurate to say that the Ottoman Empire was actually the 4th phase of Rome?
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During the Roman Empire, the wealthiest/most developed areas were Italy and the rest of the Eastern Mediterranean, with the Germanic regions of Europe seen as barbaric backwaters. In the present time, the wealthiest in the region are the countries in those Germanic/Nordic regions. Why is that?
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Why was the Isaurian dynasty of the Byzantine Empire seen as a foreign dynasty and not Roman, despite hailing from a part of Anatolia under roman rule for centuries?
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If the various Germanic tribes were able to organize into confederations that posed real competition to the Roman Empire, why didn’t they also form a Germanic empire on their side of the Rhine/Danube?
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Why did the Young Turks, described as "secular liberal intellectuals and revolutionaries", participate in genocides?
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Is it possible that the remnants of the Huns around the Black and Caspian sea were the precursors of the Khazars?
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While the early Ottoman empire was supported by the manpower of Turkic groups, it came to be led by diverse warrior families, including the family of Köse Mihal, which had a Greek Christian origin. Did Byzantium hold resentment towards "one of their own" for helping the rise of the Ottomans?
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How did Islam, a religion founded by a prophet who had concubines, become so associated with sexually repressive/conservative cultures in the modern day?
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At what point did people of Seljuk/Oghuz Turkic tribes no longer make up a significant part of the Ottoman ruling elites?
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