/u/chris_s9181's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Historically why does the American rich all the way up to the 80s felt like they were equals to the Arabic and European aristocrats and kings even though they do not have the same power ?
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i always hear how hard american had it in terms of taxation before american revolution, how come canada and aus, and other european colonies see the taxtion not so bad compared to the forfathers of america?
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As the american revolution is considered a war but England had a civil war a few hundred years before and in 1800s t he American civil war, but why isn't the American revolution war considered a civil war?
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Why was Benjamin Franklin unhappy when he got back from France after the English surrender in the revolution unhappy he wasn't given land?
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alot of governments pre slavery was hardcore captalist as well becuase they wanted gold and silver, so why did slavery change so much of europe?
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