/u/couloirjunkie's posts in /r/askscience

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Why do epidemiologists think that 60-70% of people in Germany will be infected by covid-19 when <0.01% of China has so far been infected and the disease is almost contained there? What’s the reasoning?

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Why do epidemiologists think that 60-70% of people in Germany will be infected by covid-19 when <0.01% of China has so far been infected and the disease is almost contained there? What’s the reasoning?

1 upvotes

Mark as read: Add to a list

Title	Upvotes	Mark as read	Favorited	Rating	Add to a list
Why do epidemiologists think that 60-70% of people in Germany will be infected by covid-19 when <0.01% of China has so far been infected and the disease is almost contained there? What’s the reasoning?	1
Why do epidemiologists think that 60-70% of people in Germany will be infected by covid-19 when <0.01% of China has so far been infected and the disease is almost contained there? What’s the reasoning?	1