/u/daveboat's posts in /r/askhistorians

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Why are "Western" cereal grains (wheat/rye/barley/oats) mainly ground into flour, but rice eaten whole? Is the difference due to cultural and historical reasons, or because of taste?

374 upvotes

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How would the food served to the wealthiest and most powerful people in antiquity be received by diners today?

2 upvotes

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Title	Upvotes	Mark as read	Favorited	Rating	Add to a list
Why are "Western" cereal grains (wheat/rye/barley/oats) mainly ground into flour, but rice eaten whole? Is the difference due to cultural and historical reasons, or because of taste?	374
How would the food served to the wealthiest and most powerful people in antiquity be received by diners today?	2