/u/exitpursuedbybear's posts in /r/askhistorians
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I found a thread on twitter written by a Rabbi that claims to show Joseph of the old testament bible (torah) was genderfluid. She claims this interpretation is commonly held. Is this a common interpretation?
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Why did the western scales, chromatic, octatonic, heptatonic and diatonic end up dominating so much of music in the world? Why are other music modalities such as those from Asia or Africa not more common across the globe outside of their respective cultures?
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