/u/grapp's posts in /r/AskHistorians
Hundreds of years ago a pound was worth the equivalent of hundreds of pounds in today's money. Why did the English (or anyone else) want the value of there standard unit of currency to be so high?
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if you were an upper middle class English guy in 1888, could you marry a black women without causing many of your social circle to reject you?
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was it easy for veterans to get jobs after the world wars (either), compared to unemyloyed men who didn't see service?
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why are the various forms of English around the world so similar where as Latin deviated into the various very different romance languages fairly quickly in the few hundred years after Rome fell? Is it just because we have movies and TV?
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can you think of many/any pre modern societies (lets say that means before 1614) that didn’t practice corporal punishment as a form of parenting?
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