/u/grapp's posts in /r/askhistorians
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I read article about inaccuracies in (Amazon) The Man in the high castle. The article gives PKD a pass on inaccuracies in his original novel because it would have been too difficult for to research contemporary Japanese culture, from his home in early 60s America. Is that reasonable?
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suppose you're a rich roman (AD250) and you decide you're really really fond of one of your slave children and you want to have them educated and made into a normal free roman, like as if they were your own child (legitimate child). how unusual would this be? to what extent is it legally possible?
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"Alexander conquered the known world". I've heard that or variations on it said many times and it always makes me wonder why China, North Africa and Europe don't count as the "known world"?
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In DowntonAbbey Lord Grantham was supposed have been an army officer in the late 19th century. In reality would someone like him have still been paid an army salary in spite of already being a wealthy aristocrat? If so when did it become the case that aristocrats were treated like normal officers?
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In world war 2 Japan what (if anything?) would happen to a normal person if they tried to publicly speak out agienst the government's foreign policy, in someway?
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in the 200s BC jerusalem was under the control of Ptolemaic Egypt. how did Jewish leaders at the time square bowing the knee to the Egypt in the present when having (supposedly) escaped Egypt was such a major big part of their history?
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