/u/icelandicvader's posts in /r/askhistorians
I know that the Korean spoken in north and south Korea have deviated a bit from each other in the 70 years that the nation has been divided. Did anything similar happen in the 40 years Germany was divided into east and west?
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Why were the indigenous peoples in central and south america so much more advanced culturally and technologically than the indigenous peoples of north america around the time of european arrival?
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Were there any nationalist movements in 19th century europe that failed completely and never gained independence?
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Are medieval Artisans and Merchants comparable to the middle class of the industrial/informartion age?
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