/u/imperator285's posts
In post-Roman Western Europe, what is the earliest evidence we have of anyone realizing their language(s) were evolving from Latin and/or diverging from each other?
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Why did none of the ancient Near East empires expand their Egypt province beyond the First Cataract?
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Were there any "Byzantines" before Heraclius who contemplated changing the imperial language to Greek?
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Were most major Roman institutions well intact in the West, going into the beginning of the fifth century C.E.?
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In "The Tudors," Wolsey says the Duke of Buckingham is richer than Henry. If this is true, how could it be possible for an English Duke in the early 16th century to be wealthier than the king, or even have a comparable amount of wealth?
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What did medieval/pre-modern (410-1700s CE) peasants in England do between planting season and the harvest time?
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