/u/inexister's posts in /r/askscience
Why is the observable redshift of galaxies extrapolated backwards to a single point of origin? Is that not a logical fallacy when other explanations could be equally plausible? Think of an expanding balloon, it started as a deflated balloon not a singular point in spacetime.
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How does redshift demonstrate anything more than a temporal shift or expansion of the universe as opposed to a long term one?
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