/u/jomdo's posts in /r/askhistorians
According to multiple sources, inequality is worse now in America than it was in Ancient Roman times. If we represented the wealth of the Ancient Roman (150ish AD) population with 10 people, how wealthy would each person be?
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Why do we call "Egypt", "Egypt" when it has been conquered many times over and isn't at all like Ancient Egypt?
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I'm trying to research the historical values of homes starting back since the founding of a city, how do I go about finding the data?
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If am I a 14th century European king that wishes to join the Holy Roman Empire, what process would I take?
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