/u/kafka0011's posts in /r/AskHistorians
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Are there records of some parts of colonial Spanish America where languages like Catalan, Basque, or Galician were spoken as much (or more) than Spanish?
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If Castile and Aragon remained as two different kingdoms with their own autonomy, territories and administrative institutions until 1707, then why did Castile owned all the colonies in the Americas and Aragon didn't owned any?
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If Europeans already knew that the Earth was round hundreds of years before Christ exists, why did it took so long for them to realize the Americas existed?
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Did people from Austria, Italy, the Netherlands or the HRE migrated to the Spanish American colonies?
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